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Semi tones and whole tones

Music Theory
MuseFan  
2 Jul 2009 17:02 | Quote
Joined: 18 Jan 2009
United Kingdom
Karma: 4
If when you move down or up a semim tone on the guitar and it is one fret and a whole tone is 2 frets is this because when your moving say from g to a it is 2 frets because of the sharp if thats the case when you move a whole tone up from say e to f is that only one fret?
keithmark13  
2 Jul 2009 17:15 | Quote
Joined: 23 Mar 2009
United States
Lessons: 1
Karma: 1
to e to f there is no sharp/flat. Meaning there is only 1 fret difference from an E to an F, of B to a C for that matter. All the other intervals between notes is 2 frets. So by the sounds of things you have the idea right.
JazzMaverick  
2 Jul 2009 21:21 | Quote
Joined: 28 Aug 2008
United Kingdom
Lessons: 24
Licks: 37
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Moderator
a semitone on guitar is always 1 fret, and a whole tone is always 2. always. Doesn't matter what note you're on. But check out my Grade 1 lesson for more info on that and you'll understand it completely :)
MuseFan  
3 Jul 2009 08:21 | Quote
Joined: 18 Jan 2009
United Kingdom
Karma: 4
ok cool thanks guys
so jazz does that mean that a whole tone from e would take you 2 frets up to f#?
carlsnow  
3 Jul 2009 10:26 | Quote
Joined: 29 Apr 2009
United States
Lessons: 2
Karma: 23
@ MuseFan

YES

In the same way B to C would = 1/2 while B-C# would = whole

always(as JM said) true.
MuseFan  
3 Jul 2009 10:52 | Quote
Joined: 18 Jan 2009
United Kingdom
Karma: 4
Cool maked a lot more sense now lol thanks a lot guys


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