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"Feeling" in relation to chords and modes

Music Theory
keithmark13  
16 Jun 2009 19:46 | Quote
Joined: 23 Mar 2009
United States
Lessons: 1
Karma: 1
Is it just me or is it not the modes that gives it its 'sound', but its the chord(s) that you are playing over top of?
telecrater  
16 Jun 2009 20:20 | Quote
Joined: 13 Jan 2008
United States
Lessons: 8
Karma: 13
I think your part right. It's the combination.

Our very own Afro Raven wrote a lesson and referenced a book my Frank Gamball. I didn't get the book but I did get the video off of netflix's and Frank demonstrates with several examples. It's really pretty cool.
Admiral  
17 Jun 2009 01:48 | Quote
Joined: 10 May 2009
Germany
Lessons: 1
Karma: 12
Of course, without a point of reference, your brain wont adjust. So the chords you play whilst playing your mode is essential, otherwise it will all sound the same.
league  
17 Jun 2009 08:09 | Quote
Joined: way back
United States
Lessons: 2
Karma: 10
Very interesting.

I think I understand what you're saying. Sometimes I know how a song is going to be structured by constructing a progression in my head, oftentimes it's constructed off a mode or melody and then I have trouble finding chords to get the right mood because they're are some crazy chords that fit perfectly in a progression.

Lately I've been writing more interesting songs by constructing them off of spontaneous melodies and then adding the chords. I seem to get stale songs by constructing them off chords alone.

So to sum it all up I think it's both, they complement each other unless you play "outside" the rules.
RA  
17 Jun 2009 12:35 | Quote
Joined: 24 Sep 2008
United States
Karma: 16
they work off of each other slacking in one area with only hurt the other. and without melody(modes) there would be no harmony(chords).

side note- be-pop is jazz which is based on chords while modal-jazz is based off of melody. IF i remember right "so what" harmonic structure is just one chord Eb minor7
league  
17 Jun 2009 20:25 | Quote
Joined: way back
United States
Lessons: 2
Karma: 10
You're right RA but I think Jazz is exempt.
RA  
17 Jun 2009 23:02 | Quote
Joined: 24 Sep 2008
United States
Karma: 16
why would jazz be exempt?
league  
17 Jun 2009 23:27 | Quote
Joined: way back
United States
Lessons: 2
Karma: 10
I mean free form Jazz which developed from bebop is exempt from any rules rarely they follow some melody or structure but rules are out the door.
JazzMaverick  
18 Jun 2009 09:50 | Quote
Joined: 28 Aug 2008
United Kingdom
Lessons: 24
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Moderator
Not really, there's a lot of theory behind Jazz, and when you properly study it, there's still rules, it's just easier to follow because it allows the musician to freely express themselves.


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